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   If   \lim_{x\rightarrow \infty }\left ( 1 + \frac{a}{x} - \frac{4}{x^{2}} \right )^{2x} = e^{3}  , then  'a' is equal to :

  • Option 1)

     2

  • Option 2)

    \frac{3}{2}

  • Option 3)

    \frac{2}{3}

  • Option 4)

    \frac{1}{2}

 

Answers (2)

best_answer

As we learnt in 

1 to the power of infinity Form -

Let\:\:\;\lim_{x\rightarrow a}f(x)^{g(x)}\:\;\:where

f(a)=1\:\:\:and \;\:\:g(a)=\infty

Then\:\:\:\:e^\lim_{x\rightarrow a}(f(x)-1)g(x)

-

 

\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty }\left ( 1+\frac{a}{x}-\frac{4}{x^{2}} \right )^{2x}=e^{3}

It is 1^{\infty } form.

\therefore \lim_{x\rightarrow \infty }\left ( 1+\frac{a}{x}-\frac{4}{x^{2}}-1 \right )\times 2x

\therefore \lim_{x\rightarrow \infty }\left ( \frac{a}{x}-\frac{4}{x^{2}} \right )\times 2x

\therefore \lim_{x\rightarrow \infty }\left ( a-\frac{4}{x} \right )\cdot 2

\therefore 2a

\therefore e^{2a}=e^{3}

\therefore a=\frac{3}{2} 

 


Option 1)

 2

This option is incorrect.

Option 2)

\frac{3}{2}

This option is correct.

Option 3)

\frac{2}{3}

This option is incorrect.

Option 4)

\frac{1}{2}

This option is incorrect.

Posted by

divya.saini

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Option 2

Posted by

Pushpak Sivasai. Bayana Siva Sai

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