Which of the following statements is true for all positive integers ?
We will use the principle of mathematical induction to solve this problem.
For n = 1, we have,
which is true.
Therefore,
is true for n = 1.
Assume that the statement is true for some arbitrary positive integer k.
We need to prove that the statement is also true for i.e.
Expanding we get:
Now, using the inductive hypothesis
. we can say:
To prove that it suffices to show that
i.e,
We can see that this inequality holds for all positive integers k.
Therefore, the inductive step is proved.
Hence, by the principle of mathematical induction, we can say that
for all positive integers n.
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