Which of the following is NOT a reason for a wife to request a divorce under the Indian Divorce Act, 1869, which applies to Christians in India?
The husband's adultery
The husband has committed bestiality, sodomy, or rape.
The husband has been away for four years running.
A marriage that has irreparably broken down due to incompatibility.
According to the Indian Divorce Act of 1869, either party may file for divorce on a number of stated grounds. While "incompatibility and irretrievable breakdown of marriage" are not recognised grounds for divorce under the Indian Divorce Act, 1869, a husband's adultery, his act of rape, sodomy, or bestiality, and his absence for a continuous period of four years are legitimate grounds under the Act for a wife to seek divorce. Although it has been discussed and debated whether to incorporate such grounds in Indian divorce laws, as of the most recent update (until 2021), they are not mentioned in the Act. hence option D is correct.