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The integral    \int_{0}^{\frac{1}{2}}\frac{ln(1+2x)}{1+4x^{2}}dx, equals :

Option: 1

\frac{\pi }{4}ln2


Option: 2

\frac{\pi }{8}ln2


Option: 3

\frac{\pi }{16}ln2


Option: 4

\frac{\pi }{32}ln2


Answers (1)

best_answer

As we learnt in concept

Integration by substitution -

The functions when on substitution of the variable of integration to some quantity gives any one of standard formulas.

 

 

- wherein

Since \int f(x)dx=\int f(t)dt=\int f(\theta )d\theta all variables must be converted into single variable ,\left ( t\, or\ \theta \right )

 

 

 I= \int_{0}^{1}\frac{In(1+2x)}{1+4x^2} dx

Let 2x = t  and dx = dt/2

I= \frac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{1}\frac{In(1+t)}{1+t^2} dt

Let \: t=\tan\theta \:
        dt=\sec^2\theta d\theta


I=\frac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{\pi/4}\frac{In(1+tan\theta)}{\sec^2\theta}\sec^2\theta d\theta

I= \frac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{\pi/4}In(1+\tan\theta)d\theta--------------------------------- (1)


Substituting 
y=0+\frac{\pi}{4}-x, we \:\:get

I= \frac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{\pi/4}In\left [ 1+tan(\frac{\pi}{4}-y) \right ] dy

I= \frac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{\pi/4}In\left [ 1+\frac{1-\tan y}{1+\tan y}\right ] dy

    =\frac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{\pi/4}In \left ( \frac{2}{1+\tan y} \right )dy

   =\frac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{\pi/4}In2\:- \frac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{\pi/4}In\: (1+\tan\theta )d\theta------------------------------------ (2)

 

From (1) & (2), 

2I= \frac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{\pi/4}In2\:dx

I= \frac{1}{4}(In \:2)\frac{\pi}{4}= \frac{\pi}{16}In\:2

 

    

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Pankaj

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